AI Developer

The chapter sets three productivity studies side by side: a task finished 55.8 per cent faster, more completed tasks in field experiments, and experienced developers working more slowly in their own codebases. What does it conclude?

1. The laboratory result is the most reliable because its single JavaScript task was controlled, so it should guide planning
2. The results measure different people, tasks and codebases, so a shape carries over and not a size of effect
3. The slower result for experienced developers shows that the two positive studies were methodologically flawed
4. The three should be averaged into one expected productivity gain for planning

According to the chapter, what kind of evidence would refute the second and fourth parts of the thesis?

1. A vendor report showing that most committed lines in large organisations are generated by AI and pass their tests
2. A survey in which a majority of developers say that they trust the accuracy of AI output
3. A single controlled experiment in which an agent completes a task faster than a developer
4. Independent multi-year evidence that organisations without named owners and generator-independent checks do better

At the start of the year, where do agentic work tools (Mode 3) stand in the two organisations?

1. At Level 2 Supervised at most: a developer reviews every pull request an agent opens and the agent never merges
2. At Level 3 Bounded for all generated code at Hansa Mutual and Level 2 Supervised at Nordvik Region
3. At Level 4 Autonomous in sandboxes at Hansa Mutual and prohibited entirely at Nordvik Region
4. At Level 1 Assisted in both, since neither organisation allows an agent to open a pull request

In the chapter's table of the lineage, what did agile and Extreme Programming leave unanswered?

1. The cognitive load of the toolchain on a product team
2. The late discovery of wrong requirements in large projects
3. The durability of knowledge and the ownership of code
4. The effort needed to write the common parts of a system

What did the logging study by Meyer and colleagues of 20 professional developers find about coding?

1. Coding took 21.0 per cent of the logged time, the largest single share but a minority of the day
2. Coding took about 58 per cent of the logged time, with seniors coding more than juniors
3. Coding took less time than using the debugger, reviewing code and using version control together
4. Coding could not be separated from program comprehension in the logged categories

In what two respects does the chapter say generative AI differs from compilers, frameworks and earlier code generation?

1. It is cheaper to buy and it needs no change to the pipeline
2. It is slower to run and it works only on modern languages
3. It removes essential difficulty and it makes review unnecessary
4. Its output is not deterministic and its reach across the developer's work is wider

How does the chapter grade Veracode's report on generated code and GitClear's analysis of changed lines?

1. As measured evidence, because both rest on large datasets of real code
2. As surveyed evidence, because both rest on what developers said
3. As vendor evidence, useful as a hypothesis and weak as a finding
4. As argued evidence, because neither contains any measurement at all

Nordvik Region's executive committee was told that the pilot made developers 'a third faster'. What did the claim rest on?

1. A comparison of delivery times before and after the pilot across four teams
2. IDE telemetry of a 31 per cent acceptance rate and a survey answered by 9 of 12 developers
3. A sample of 40 merged pull requests in which 27 per cent of lines were traced to suggestions
4. A randomised trial run by the platform team with a control group of consultants

What is the chapter's own conclusion for the whole of Part I about where the strain on the developer role falls?

1. On the capacity to prove and to own, more than on the capacity to produce
2. On the capacity to produce code fast enough to meet the backlog
3. On the capacity to learn new tools faster than they are replaced
4. On the capacity to negotiate tool budgets with senior management

What ceiling does the chapter recommend for the work class review?

1. Level 0 Advisory, because no AI comment may appear on a pull request
2. Level 2 Supervised, because an AI approval counts once a developer confirms it
3. Level 3 Bounded, for changes whose checks have all passed in the pipeline
4. Level 1 Assisted: AI comments are input to a human reviewer, never an approval

Which of these checks does the chapter classify as not independent of the generator?

1. Characterisation tests recorded from the running legacy system
2. Tests written by the same assistant in the same session as the code
3. Static analysis and type checking with fixed rules
4. Tests derived from the specification record by a different person before the code

Under the Name test, which ownership entry fails?

1. A named team with a reachable lead recorded in the ownership record
2. A named developer with a deputy recorded for periods of absence
3. A department such as Policy Systems recorded as owner of the estate
4. A tech lead recorded as owner of the repositories of one product team

The form says household and means the applicant's family; the case system uses the same word for everyone at the address. Which kind of ambiguity is this, and what remedy does the chapter give?

1. Scope ambiguity, remedied by a list of what is out of scope with the reason
2. Condition ambiguity, remedied by a boundary scenario and a named rule owner
3. Vocabulary ambiguity, remedied by a glossary entry agreed with the case handlers
4. Interface ambiguity, remedied by a contract test between the two systems

In the Nordvik Region specification record, how is the baseline for returned applications recorded, and why?

1. As not measured, because the claim can only be tested against a baseline that exists
2. As an estimate by the assistant, because no telemetry was available for the form
3. As the figure from the pilot survey, because nine of twelve developers answered it
4. As confidential, because the public-access rules prevent its disclosure

Where do the Level 4 prohibitions bite on framing, according to the chapter?

1. An assistant may never draft a user story from a meeting transcript
2. No agent changes the acceptance criteria its own output is tested against
3. A product owner may never use a conversational assistant to build a prototype
4. A specification may never be stored in the same repository as the code it describes

In the worked decision ADR-NR-0031, which element does the decider mark as one-way?

1. The status interface behind the gateway, because the vendor controls its schema
2. The use of the pilot assistant, because its transcript must be archived
3. The mapping check against closed cases, because it runs only once before release
4. The public status vocabulary shown to applicants, because residents rely on it

Which ADR field is, according to the chapter, the evidence that the decision was the developer's own and not the tool's?

1. What the human added or rejected, with reasons
2. The title and status of the record
3. The date on which the record was committed
4. The list of pull requests that implement it

Which statement about drift does the chapter treat as a mechanism that does not depend on the studies?

1. Copy-pasted lines rise in every codebase where an assistant is in use
2. More capable models always produce fewer architecture violations
3. A design constraint that appears in no file cannot be seen by a tool that generates code
4. A 25 per cent increase in AI adoption always lowers delivery stability by the same estimated share

In the study by Peng and colleagues, what was measured and with what result?

1. Weekly pull requests of 4,867 developers, which rose by about a quarter
2. Time for 95 freelance programmers to complete one JavaScript task: 71.17 against 160.89 minutes
3. Time for 16 experienced open-source developers on 246 tasks in mature projects, which was 19 per cent longer
4. Time for 96 engineers on an enterprise task, about 21 per cent shorter

According to the chapter, what does the risk of a coding tool grow with?

1. The number of parameters and the benchmark score of the model behind it
2. The share of the team's developers who hold a licence for it
3. The price per seat and the length of the supplier contract
4. The unit the developer must review and the identity the tool uses

How does the usage profile for NR-DEV-001 show the quoted claim that developers are a third faster?

1. As asserted, beside the measurement plan that would verify it
2. As verified, because the executive committee has accepted it
3. As withdrawn, because the pilot ended before the profile was written
4. As confidential, because it rests on telemetry about named developers

Which rule about approval does the Nordvik Region mandate MND-NR-DEV-01 contain?

1. Two platform engineers must approve every run before it starts
2. The CIO approves each pull request that an agent opens
3. The person who starts the run does not approve its pull request
4. The agent may approve its own pull request when all checks pass

Why must the stop path not run through the pipeline that the agent's pull requests trigger?

1. Because pipelines are too slow to stop a run within the wall-time budget
2. Because if a pipeline job stops the agent, a broken pipeline leaves it running
3. Because the pipeline is owned by the platform team and not by the requester
4. Because a pipeline stop would delete the run record that the host has written

In the chapter's table of ceilings for a coding agent, what applies to the work class review?

1. Level 0 Advisory: an AI review comment never counts as an approval
2. Level 2 Supervised: an agent approves after a developer confirms
3. Level 3 Bounded: an agent approves patch-level dependency updates
4. Level 1 Assisted: an agent's approval counts as one of two approvers

What does the rule of protection require of an independent oracle?

1. That the oracle is stored in an encrypted repository with restricted read access
2. That the oracle is rewritten whenever the model behind the tool changes
3. That the tool producing the change cannot edit the oracle, the review rules or the gates
4. That the oracle is reviewed by a second AI model from a different provider before each merge

What does the duplicated-settlements incident at Hansa Mutual (INC-HM-2029-0207) show, according to the chapter?

1. That generated COBOL is less reliable than generated Java in payment paths
2. That a review without independence fails even when nobody used AI at all
3. That mutation testing would have been too slow for the quarter-end batch
4. That two approvers are always sufficient for a security-critical change

In the chapter's division of labour, who should write a property-based test?

1. A person, working from the specification and not from the code
2. The assistant that generated the change, in the same session
3. The platform team, once, as a fixed rule for all repositories
4. A specialist in formal methods, together with the product owner

Which of the following is one of the five dependency controls the chapter lists?

1. A rule that agents may only propose packages written in the team's main language
2. A monthly manual review of every package in the lock file
3. A requirement that every new dependency is first forked into the organisation
4. A waiting period before new versions of existing packages are installed

What happened in the incident INC-NR-2030-0071 at Nordvik Region?

1. A consultant pasted a test-database connection string into an unapproved public chat assistant
2. A coding agent proposed a dependency that did not exist and the proxy refused it
3. A pipeline workflow ran with elevated permissions on the title of an untrusted pull request from outside
4. A generated change to the citizen portal bypassed the regression pack

What does the provenance record in the chapter say about the share of code written by a human?

1. It states the share as measured by accepted suggestions in the IDE
2. It says nothing about it, and claims origin only as far as a log supports
3. It estimates the share from the agent's run record and the diff size
4. It records the share as confidential under the works agreement

Which control does Table 11.1 class as one the change can alter?

1. Required status checks and branch rules set at organisation level
2. The pipeline definition file in the same repository
3. Policy as code in a separate repository with its own owners
4. Synthetic journeys owned by the quality function

How does the chapter say a revert that has not been exercised in the last 90 days should be recorded?

1. As passed, provided that the pipeline rollback step exists
2. As failed, which blocks all further releases of the service
3. As waived, with the approval of the engineering manager
4. As not tested, a legitimate entry that is not the same as passed

Why does the class approval in CHG-HM-2030-0415 expire on the delegation profile's review date?

1. So that the class approval does not outlive the evidence behind it
2. So that the supplier contract can be renegotiated at the same time
3. So that each update receives an individual approval after that date
4. So that the agent's credentials are rotated once a year

What did the randomised trial by Borg and others, in which 75 developers evolved code without AI, find?

1. Code written with an assistant took significantly longer for the next maintainer to change
2. Lines added rose three to five times in the first month after adoption
3. No significant difference for the next maintainer, whether or not an assistant was used
4. Copy-pasted lines rose from 8.3 to 12.3 per cent of changed lines

What sequence do both organisations arrive at for legacy modernisation?

1. Owner first, oracle second, knowledge captured third, translation last
2. Translation first, tests second, owner third, documentation last
3. Documentation first, translation second, oracle third, owner last
4. Oracle first, translation second, knowledge third, owner last

What does the practical guide say about using ownership records to count the modules a named developer owns for appraisal?

1. It recommends it as a fair measure of a senior developer's contribution
2. It allows it when the engineering manager and the tech lead both agree
3. It requires it as part of the yearly ownership review
4. It treats it as a monitoring use that the record is not meant for

What did the study by Humlum and Vestergaard, linking chatbot adoption surveys to Danish administrative records, find?

1. Precise null effects on earnings and recorded hours two years after the launch
2. A fall of about a fifth in the employment of the youngest workers in exposed occupations
3. A 26.08 per cent increase in completed tasks, larger for less experienced workers
4. A lower score on a comprehension quiz for participants who used an assistant

Which rule does the chapter set for the junior's review of pull requests?

1. It counts as one of the two required approvals once the mentor has signed it
2. It replaces the senior's review for changes outside security-critical paths
3. It is practice and not the gate, and it does not count as a required approval
4. It is done only with the AI reviewer's comments visible, to save time

How does the verdict label the claim that the junior developer will disappear?

1. Observable, on the strength of the American payroll data
2. Expected, because the entry tasks are already delegated
3. Refuted, because every earlier wave of tools kept juniors
4. Speculation, since no evidence cited supports the claim

Which of the following is one of the six parts of the professional-judgement clause?

1. The right to veto any generated change permanently, without review by peers
2. The right to decline ownership of a change that fails the stewardship tests
3. The right to see each colleague's acceptance rate
4. The right to approve a change on the strength of an AI review comment

What happens, under the clause, to a hold that is not answered in time?

1. It lapses to the next decision-maker named in the charter
2. It becomes permanent until the senior withdraws it
3. It is overridden automatically by the pipeline after two days
4. It is escalated to the works council for a ruling

Why does the charter for staff and principal roles include a build share?

1. Because staff engineers are cheaper than agents for mechanical changes
2. Because the works agreement forbids roles that consist only of review and mentoring
3. Because a reviewer who no longer changes the system risks losing its theory
4. Because acceptance-rate targets require every engineer to generate code

According to the chapter's table of responsibilities, who takes a proposal to raise a ceiling to the owner of the delegation profile?

1. The tech lead alone, who also records the new ceiling in the team working agreement
2. The senior developer, under the judgement clause
3. The platform engineer who registers the tool
4. The engineering manager, after the tech lead proposes it with evidence

What does the Wednesday block in the worked weekly rhythm of the Hamburg team produce?

1. Acceptance criteria and a named owner for each item of the week
2. A second reviewer re-reads five merged AI-involved changes and logs what the first missed
3. A list of owners without deputies and any ceiling lowered this week
4. A refreshed claim record and answers to any headcount question

In a headcount record, what does the chapter require of the evidence owner?

1. Independence from the sponsor of the claim
2. Membership of the executive committee
3. Access to per-person telemetry from the tool
4. A background in finance rather than engineering

Under the error-budget policy recorded in AIDR-1166 for the customer portal of Hansa Mutual, what happens to the Level 3 Bounded class when the service budget is spent?

1. It is removed from the delegation profile permanently
2. It continues unchanged, because patch-level dependency updates are reversible
3. It drops from Level 3 Bounded to Level 2 Supervised for that service
4. It rises to Level 4 Autonomous to restore the service faster

What does the chapter's decision table say about the definition of a pipeline gate?

1. The requesting team defines it for its own service and the platform team is informed
2. The platform lead decides it, and it is not editable by the change it gates
3. The architect defines it in the design forum for each service
4. The coding agent may adjust thresholds within its mandate

Which of these does the chapter list as a common failure of a platform team?

1. Recording metadata only at the AI gateway
2. Publishing a version number for the golden path
3. Reporting a package refusal to the mandate owner
4. Making the golden path mandatory without an exception route

According to the table of where the boundary moves, what must not move for the activity hold or revert a release?

1. The release manager approves every hold in advance of the release window
2. The pipeline acts on the basis of canary analysis alone
3. The product owner signs the specification record
4. The authority to hold or revert sits outside the pipeline

What default expiry does the book use for verification evidence in the four-part test?

1. 30 days by the clock, or at the end of the sprint if that is sooner
2. 90 days by the clock, and earlier when the conditions change
3. 180 days by the clock, the same default as for value claims
4. One year, reviewed together with the delegation profile

How does the chapter label the claim that testing as a role will end because models write tests?

1. Speculation: no study reviewed for the chapter shows it
2. Observable: test drafting is already in use at Hansa Mutual
3. Expected: the trend in test generation supports it
4. Measured: the Meta field report demonstrates it

Why did nothing in the framework agreement NR-2025-102 address the consultant who pasted a test-database connection string into a public assistant?

1. The agreement covered only suppliers of finished systems
2. The agreement had expired before the incident occurred
3. The agreement for about 22 consultant developers had no clause on AI tools
4. The agreement delegated all tool decisions to the consultants' employer

Which answer to the chapter's six questions tends towards building a component in-house?

1. The component encodes the Region's own legal interpretation
2. The rule changes rarely, or on the supplier's timetable
3. The component is a generic service used by many authorities
4. The Region has nobody who can own the component

Under the Region's rule, who answers a request for public documents that concerns code or design records?

1. The developer who wrote the code, since they know it best
2. The competent official, with the developer's help in finding the material
3. The supplier of the coding tool, under the record clause
4. The union's IT representative, after reviewing the logs

Which tool belongs in Tier D and is therefore not a citizen build?

1. A macro used only by its maker, with no personal data of others
2. A workflow tool that ranks or decides about a named person
3. A form used by colleagues in one unit, with internal data only
4. A tracker holding personal data of citizens

Who promotes a Tier C tool to production under the chapter's promotion criteria?

1. The maker, once the unit head has signed the entry
2. The unit head, using the maker's credentials
3. The data protection officer, after screening the data
4. The platform pipeline, with an identity that is not the maker's

What is the highest degree of delegation the chapter's table allows for agentic work tools (Mode 3) in citizen building?

1. None: reserved to developers and the platform team under a mandate
2. Level 1 Assisted, for Tier A and Tier B tools only
3. Level 2 Supervised, when the maker approves each step and runs known cases
4. Level 3 Bounded, inside the platform sandbox

What does the chapter mean by a gaming check?

1. A second measure, from different data, that would move if the first were gamed
2. An audit by the works council of each named developer's acceptance rate every quarter
3. A penalty applied to teams whose figures improve too quickly
4. A comparison of the tool's dashboard with the supplier's benchmark

Who should own the evidence for a use case in the adoption portfolio?

1. The sponsor of the use case, who knows it best
2. The supplier of the tool, under the reporting clause of the contract
3. An evidence owner who is not the sponsor of the use case
4. The developer with the highest acceptance rate

What state are the two claims in the Nordvik record AVR-NR-2030-01 in at the start of the year, with an evidence age of five months?

1. Both the usage claim and the value claim are verified
2. The usage claim is verified and the value claim has expired
3. Both claims were withdrawn by the tech lead in October
4. The usage claim has expired and the value claim is asserted

According to the chapter, what is the one purpose of disclosing in a pull request that an assistant or agent took part?

1. To let the engineering manager compare how much each named developer uses the tool
2. To tell the reviewer where to look harder and to feed the provenance record
3. To reduce the number of approvals a generated change needs
4. To assign liability to the tool's supplier if the change fails

Which of these is part of the chapter's response to shadow AI?

1. Monitoring of each named developer's network traffic
2. A ban on all assistants until a tender has closed
3. A report route that costs nothing for someone who pasted what they should not have
4. A ranking of teams by the number of unapproved tools found

How does the team practice agreement relate to the delegation profile?

1. It is stricter than the profile and never looser
2. It replaces the profile for the team that adopts it
3. It may raise a ceiling when the whole team agrees
4. It applies only to external members of the team

For the trigger vendor update, in which an IDE update switches on completion by default, when is information due according to the chapter's table?

1. Within 90 days of the update reaching developers' machines, when the first telemetry is read
2. At the next annual review of the works agreement
3. Only if the update also changes the licence price
4. Before the update enters the managed image, with the default off until a decision

What does the Dutch Works Councils Act give the works council for facilities that observe attendance, conduct or performance?

1. A right to be informed after the facility is in use
2. A right of consent under Article 27(1)(k) and (l)
3. A right to nominate the supplier of the facility
4. A right to read person-level telemetry on request

Which statement matches the chapter's first rule on naming for stewardship?

1. A record names a person for a change, not for a rate
2. A record names a team only, never an individual reviewer
3. A record names the tool and omits every human name
4. A record names the developer with the lowest acceptance rate

What did the review PIR-NR-2030-0006 of the Nordvik Region form change find?

1. A model fault in the lines of the interface written by the Mode 2 pilot
2. An agent action beyond the intent of its mandate
3. A specification gap, not a model fault; Understand failed for the mapping
4. A compromised dependency in the build chain of the citizen portal's gateway client

How long did the revert take from the decision in the Hansa Mutual incident, and what did the steward's result show?

1. 22 minutes, and the Understand test failed
2. 38 minutes, and the steward passed Name, Understand and Revert
3. 47 minutes, and the canary stage had been skipped
4. Two days, and the module had no owner

Under NIS 2 Article 23(4), as the chapter's table gives it, what are the first two clocks for a significant incident?

1. Notification within 4 hours and a final report within 7 days
2. A single report within 30 days of the end of the incident
3. Notification without undue delay and, where feasible, within 72 hours, with no early warning
4. Early warning within 24 hours of becoming aware and incident notification within 72 hours

What does the chapter conclude about how the development provisions it read treat code written with an assistant?

1. None distinguishes it from code written by a person; Article 50(2) may be the exception
2. All of them place stricter review duties on generated code than on hand-written code
3. The Cyber Resilience Act exempts generated code from the essential requirements of Annex I
4. DORA requires that generated code be labelled in every change record

From which date does Directive (EU) 2024/2853 apply to products, and what does its Article 4(1) say about software?

1. From 11 December 2027; software is excluded unless embedded in hardware
2. From 11 September 2026; software is a service and not a product
3. To products placed on the market after 9 December 2026; a product includes software
4. From 27 July 2026, with the Omnibus; software is a product only when it contains an AI model

How often is the duty register re-read, according to the practical guide?

1. Once, when the register is approved as a decision record
2. Every 90 days, with the usage claims
3. Only when a supervisor asks for it
4. At most six months after the last reading, and on every announced amendment

What does the chapter say about the evidence that a professional code changes behaviour?

1. Several large studies show that codes reliably change decisions
2. It is thin and not encouraging, so codes must become rules met at the point of work
3. Codes change behaviour only when they are made legally binding on the employer as well
4. No one has studied the question, so the chapter makes no statement

Which rule states that a change adding or altering an interaction pattern is tested by a person with a keyboard and a screen reader?

1. The gate rule
2. The proxy rule
3. The prototype rule
4. The person rule

In the Hansa Mutual case of ranking broker enquiries partly on postcode, who decided whether postcode was a permissible input?

1. The chief risk officer's delegate, after the proxy rule routed the request to review
2. The developer who received the request, under the judgement clause
3. The coding agent, within the limits of its mandate
4. The Konzernbetriebsrat, under its co-determination right

Which of the following is one of the four routes of licence contamination the chapter lists?

1. A developer forgetting to renew a commercial IDE licence
2. A provider changing the price of a seat during the contract
3. A dependency that the assistant or agent adds, with its licence
4. A works agreement that restricts the use of telemetry

What does the chapter conclude from the four cases it reads under litigation as signal?

1. Together they establish that using a coding assistant is lawful in the Union and the United Kingdom
2. None decides that an organisation using a coding assistant infringes, or that it does not
3. They establish that generated code can never be protected by copyright
4. They show that training on code is always covered by the mining exception

When is the dependency and exit record reviewed, according to the chapter's summary?

1. Every five years, with the support period of the product
2. Only when the supplier contract is renegotiated
3. Whenever a developer leaves the team that owns the record, and otherwise every five years
4. At the earlier of evidence expiry, a model-retirement notice and a change of terms

Which expiry does the chapter use for competences that decay with disuse, such as reading and verification without the tool?

1. 30 days
2. 90 days
3. One year
4. Three years

What does a seeded-defect review, done with and without the assistant's comment visible, show?

1. Whether the developer attended the training on the tool
2. How many suggestions the developer accepts in a week
3. Whether the developer finds defects, and whether the assistant's comment changes that
4. Whether the specification behind the change was a good one

How is a competence group shown when its evidence has passed its expiry?

1. As lapsed, not as the last level reached
2. At the last level reached, with a note
3. One level lower than the last level reached
4. As Foundation, until the developer is reassessed

What does the chapter say is established when the studies are read together?

1. A rate of skill loss of about one fifth per year for developers
2. That assistants improve unaided performance in every population studied
3. That offloading has no measurable effect on experienced professionals
4. A conditional pattern across the studies, and not a rate of skill loss

Why is debugging an unfamiliar failure on the chapter's list of skills to keep by hand?

1. It had the largest score gap in the programming experiment and Revert needs it
2. It is the skill on which assistants score worst in the public coding benchmarks
3. It is required by Article 4 of the AI Act for all developers
4. It is the only skill that cannot be practised in a kata

What status do the practice-plan schemes at the two organisations have under AIDR-1137 and AIDR-1187?

1. Final, after approval by the executive bodies
2. Withdrawn, because the unions objected
3. Interim, pending the agreements with the employee representatives
4. Mandatory for all developers from the first quarter

How does the verdict label the statement that total employment in software roles in the EU holds to 2036, with a shift in the content of the work?

1. Observable
2. Speculation
3. Expected
4. Refuted

Which projection does the author label as speculation?

1. P1: the work moves towards D1, D4 and D5 and total employment holds
2. P3: a few named stewards answer for many agent-authored changes in some units
3. P2: the entry route survives where organisations build it deliberately, and thins elsewhere
4. P5: the named steward persists because the law names a party

What does the chapter say about the Level 4 prohibitions in relation to the projections?

1. They are projection P6 and carry their own threshold
2. They are expected to be lifted once agents double their task length again
3. They apply only until the Cyber Resilience Act takes effect
4. They are not a projection but the ceiling the book recommends

Which stewardship test does the catalogue say the unowned agent fails?

1. Understand, because nobody can explain what the agent changed
2. Revert, because the agent's credential cannot be revoked
3. None of the three, since an agent is not a change
4. Name, because nobody can say who owns it or its permissions

What does the chapter say about the Amazon Q Developer extension case in terms of the tests?

1. Revert held and a gate failed; the control named is a gate contributors cannot alter
2. Name failed, because nobody at the vendor owned the extension
3. Understand failed, because the generated tests shared the assumptions of the generator's code
4. All three tests passed, and the case is listed as a success

Which is the only success case in the chapter, and what does the chapter note about its figures?

1. Knight Capital, whose figures come from a regulator's order
2. The Horizon system, whose figures come from a High Court judgment
3. AI-assisted migration at Google, whose figures are estimates by the people who did the work
4. The Nx build tool, whose figures come from a maintainers' advisory

What happened to the Level 3 Bounded class of patch-level dependency updates at Hansa Mutual when its revert rehearsal lapsed on 31 December?

1. It was withdrawn from the delegation profile for the rest of the year
2. It fell to Level 2 Supervised until the rehearsal was repeated in January
3. It continued at Level 3 because the class approval was still valid
4. It was extended to the payment path to make up for lost time

What does the chapter say the illustrative year can and cannot show?

1. It shows that the instruments raise productivity by a measurable amount
2. It shows that Hansa Mutual's approach is better than Nordvik Region's
3. It shows that Level 4 is safe once drills are passed
4. It can show that the instruments are workable and cannot show that they work

How were the quiet failures of the year found?

1. Each was found by a person, such as an applicant who telephoned or a claims handler
2. Each was flagged by the coding tool's own dashboard within an hour of the release
3. Each was caught by the AI reviewer's comments on the pull request before it was merged
4. Each was reported by the supplier under the notice clause

According to the comparison table, which of Name, Understand and Revert is hardest for each organisation?

1. Revert for Nordvik Region, and Understand for Hansa Mutual
2. Name for Nordvik Region, and Revert for Hansa Mutual
3. Understand for Nordvik Region, and Name for the estate at Hansa Mutual
4. Understand for both, because of ambient completion

What does the plan require before Hansa Mutual's Level 3 Bounded class under MND-HM-DEV-01 is renewed?

1. Measured reverts and a rehearsal no older than 90 days, or a drop to Level 2
2. A rise in the acceptance rate of the IDE assistant across the claims product line
3. The signature of the nearshore partner on the developer annex
4. A benchmark showing that the agent resolves more issues than a developer

What does the chapter identify as Nordvik Region's least examined exposure?

1. The two junior developers in their first quarter
2. The enterprise architect's review of the public status vocabulary for the citizen portal
3. The published citizen e-service components
4. The consultant developers and supplier teams, whose tools nothing yet binds

What verdict does the chapter give on Part 3 of the thesis, that verification becomes the scarce skill and the junior pipeline must be rebuilt?

1. It holds without qualification, because several long-term studies confirm it
2. Conditional: pressure on the entry route is observable, the remedy untested
3. It is refuted by the field experiments that found productivity gains
4. It is speculation in every respect and should be dropped from planning

Which part of the thesis does the chapter say has the most direct support, and why?

1. Part 1, because employment data for Europe confirm the transformation
2. Part 2, because benchmarks show agents fail above Level 3
3. Part 4, because courts have already applied the three tests
4. Part 5, because it is partly a method and can be checked against an organisation's own records

Where does the author's projection Q3 expect the ladder to be raised first?

1. At Level 3 Bounded, in mechanical, reversible classes such as dependency patches
2. At Level 4 Autonomous, for security-critical code once models improve on the benchmarks
3. At Level 2 Supervised, for decisions about named developers
4. Nowhere, because the ceilings are fixed by law for all classes